how many questions of 300-207 exam dumps?

Q1. When a Cisco Email Security Appliance joins a cluster, which four settings are inherited? (Choose four.) 

A. IP address 

B. DNS settings 

C. SMTP routes 

D. HAT 

E. RAT 

F. hostname 

G. certificates 

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Q2. Which Cisco ESA command is used to edit the ciphers that are used for GUI access? 

A. interfaceconfig 

B. etherconfig 

C. certconfig 

D. sslconfig 

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Q3. Which Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service component mitigates new botnet, phishing, and web-based threats? 

A. the IntelliShield Threat Outbreak Alert 

B. IntelliShield Alert Manager vulnerability alerts 

C. the IntelliShield Alert Manager historical database 

D. the IntelliShield Alert Manager web portal 

E. the IntelliShield Alert Manager back-end intelligence engine 

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Q4. Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam? 

A. Reputation-based filtering 

B. Context-based filtering 

C. Cisco ESA multilayer approach 

D. Policy-based filtering 

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Q5. Which two statements about devices within a Cisco ESA cluster are true? (Choose two.) 

A. Clustered systems must consist of devices in the same hardware series. 

B. Clustered devices can communicate via either SSH or Cluster Communication Service. 

C. Clustered devices can communicate only with Cluster Communication Service. 

D. In-the-cloud devices must be in a separate cluster from on-premise devices. 

E. Clustered devices can run different versions of AsyncOS. 

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Q6. Which Cisco technology prevents targeted malware attacks, provides data loss prevention and spam protection, and encrypts email? 

A. SBA 

B. secure mobile access 

C. IPv6 DMZ web service 

D. ESA 

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Q7. Connections are being denied because of SenderBase Reputation Scores. Which two features must be enabled in order to record those connections in the mail log on the Cisco ESA? (Choose two.) 

A. Rejected Connection Handling 

B. Domain Debug Logs 

C. Injection Debug Logs 

D. Message Tracking 

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Q8. Which two options are characteristics of router-based IPS? (Choose two.) 

A. It supports custom signatures 

B. It supports virtual sensors. 

C. It supports multiple VRFs. 

D. It uses configurable anomaly detection. 

E. Signature definition files have been deprecated. 

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Q9. Which three user roles are partially defined by default in Prime Security Manager? (Choose three.) 

A. networkoperator 

B. admin 

C. helpdesk 

D. securityoperator 

E. monitoringadmin 

F. systemadmin 

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Q10. Which three sender reputation ranges identify the default behavior of the Cisco Email Security Appliance? (Choose three.) 

A. If it is between -1 and +10, the email is accepted 

B. If it is between +1 and +10, the email is accepted 

C. If it is between -3 and -1, the email is accepted and additional emails from the sender are throttled 

D. If it is between -3 and +1, the email is accepted and additional emails from the sender are throttled 

E. If it is between -4 and +1, the email is accepted and additional emails from the sender are throttled 

F. If it is between -10 and -3, the email is blocked 

G. If it is between -10 and -3, the email is sent to the virus and spam engines for additional scanning 

H. If it is between -10 and -4, the email is blocked 

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