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Q1. Refer to the exhibit.
Why is the router not accessible via Telnet on the GigabitEthernet0 management interface?
A. The wrong port is being used in the telnet-acl access list.
B. The subnet mask is incorrect in the telnet-acl access list.
C. The log keyword needs to be removed from the telnet-acl access list.
D. The access class needs to have the vrf-also keyword added.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct command should be “access-class telnet-acl in vrf-also”. If you do not specify the vrf-also keyword, incoming Telnet connections from interfaces that are part of a VRF are rejected.
Q2. Which EIGRP packet types are sent as unicast packets?
A. hello, update, query
B. query, SIA query, reply
C. SIA query, reply, ACK
D. query, SIA query, SIA reply
Answer: C
Q3. An access switch at a remote location is connected to the spanning-tree root with redundant uplinks. A network engineer notices that there are issues with the physical cabling of the current root port. The engineer decides to force the secondary link to be the desired forwarding root port. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Adjust the secondary link to have a lower priority than the primary link.
B. Change the link type to point-to-point.
C. Apply a BPDU filter on the primary interface of the remote switches.
D. Enable Rapid Spanning Tree to converge using the secondary link.
Answer: A
Q4. Which three statements about the default behaviour of eBGP sessions are true? (Choose three.)
A. eBGP sessions between sub-ASs in different confederations transmit the next hop unchanged.
B. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the IP address of the neighbor that announced the route.
C. When a route reflector reflects a route to a client, it transmits the next hop unchanged.
D. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the loopback address of the interface that originated the route.
E. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the loopback address of the neighbor that announced the route.
F. When a route reflector reflects a route to a client, it changes the next hop to its own address.
Answer: A,B,C
Q5. Which three factors does Cisco PfR use to calculate the best exit path? (Choose three.)
A. quality of service
B. packet size
C. delay
D. loss
E. reachability
F. administrative distance
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Cisco PfR selects an egress or ingress WAN path based on parameters that affect application performance, including reachability, delay, cost, jitter, and Mean Opinion Score (MOS).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/performance-routing-pfr/product_data_sheet0900aecd806c4ee4.html
Q6. Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.
C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) conditional advertisement feature provides additional control of route advertisement, depending on the existence of other prefixes in the BGP table. Normally, routes are propagated regardless of the existence of a different path. The BGP conditional advertisement feature uses the non-exist-map and the advertise-map keywords of the neighbor advertise-map command in order to track routes by the route prefix. If a route prefix is not present in output of the non-exist-map command, then the route specified by the advertise-map command is announced. This feature is useful for multihomed networks, in which some prefixes are advertised to one of the providers only if information from the other provider is not present (this indicates a failure in the peering session or partial reachability).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/16137-cond-adv.html
Q7. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the MPLS term on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Answer:
Q8. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two benefits result from using this command on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. The port cannot forward unknown unicast packets.
B. Network security is increased on the configured port.
C. The port cannot forward unknown multicast packets.
D. The port cannot forward unknown broadcast packets.
E. Network security is increased on all ports of the switch.
F. Unknown packets of all types, except unicast, are blocked.
Answer: A,B
Q9. Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas?
A. area 1 - area 0 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 0 - area 2
B. area 1 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 2
C. area 1 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 1
D. area 2 - area 0 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 1
E. area 0 - area 2 - MPLS VPN superbackbone - area 1
Answer: E
Explanation:
In the case of MPLS-VPN Backbone as The OSPF superbackbone behaves exactly like Area 0 in regular OSPF, so we cannot have two different area 0’s that are not directly connected to each other. When area 0 connects to the superbackbone, it simply becomes an extension of area 0.
Q10. Which trunking configuration between two Cisco switches can cause a security risk?
A. configuring different native VLANs on the switches
B. configuring different trunk modes on the switches
C. configuring mismatched VLANs on the trunk
D. disabling DTP on the trunk ports
E. configuring incorrect channel-groups on the switches
Answer: A