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NEW QUESTION 1
Which feature of Cisco ISE uses Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags 10 edit networks dynamically rather than with VLANs?

  • A. Device profiting and onboarding
  • B. Role and device segmentation
  • C. Guest Access
  • D. Secure remote access

Answer: B

Explanation: ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

NEW QUESTION 2
Which two features are part of the ISE Plus license? (Choose two.)

  • A. Threat Centric NAC
  • B. Profiling and feed services
  • C. Guest management
  • D. Cisco pxGrid
  • E. Basic network Access AA
  • F. 802 IX

Answer: BD

Explanation: ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

NEW QUESTION 3
Which are two main features of Stateful Firewalling? (Choose two.)

  • A. Clientless lagging
  • B. File retrospection
  • C. Full VX LAN support
  • D. File reputation

Answer: AC

Explanation: ASAS Security NGFW and NGIPS SE Module 4

NEW QUESTION 4
Which are three main features of the Meraki MX discussed in Cloud App Security module? (Choose three)

  • A. Cloud-Brokered VPN
  • B. Posture Assessment
  • C. Intrusion Prevention
  • D. Email Security
  • E. Profiling
  • F. Next Generation Firewall

Answer: CEF

NEW QUESTION 5
What are two key points of the Cisco Security and Threat Landscape module? (Choose two.)

  • A. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes by providing threat-centric defense, visibility and control, and flexible solutions
  • B. The threat landscape is expanding, becoming more complex, and threats are increasingly costing more to customers
  • C. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio stops all threat from entering a customers network.
  • D. Customers need several solutions to protect their environment.

Answer: AB

Explanation: ASAS Security NGFW and NGIPS SE Module 4

NEW QUESTION 6
Which Cisco product is a part of the Data Center threat centric solution?

  • A. Cloudlock
  • B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
  • C. NGFWv
  • D. Meraki MX

Answer: C

Explanation: ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions - AM and SE Module 7

NEW QUESTION 7
Which feature of E-mail Security protects users from virus outbreaks using the Tabs database to quarantine suspicious messages?

  • A. Antivirus defense
  • B. Outbreak fitters
  • C. Data Loss Prevention
  • D. Advanced Malware Protection

Answer: B

Explanation: ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

NEW QUESTION 8
Which is a Cisco solution features retrospective security?

  • A. AMP for Endpoint
  • B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
  • C. Umbrella
  • D. Investigate

Answer: A

Explanation: ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE - Module 3

NEW QUESTION 9
Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestrator?

  • A. Simplifies security policy management
  • B. Identifies sensitive data in cloud environments
  • C. Detects anomalous traffic on customer's network
  • D. Provides retrospective security

Answer: A

Explanation: ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE - Module 3

NEW QUESTION 10
Which feature of Cisco Web Security leverages the Outbreak Intelligence Engine to scan individual pieces of websites before allowing access?

  • A. Antivirus Monitoring
  • B. Dynamic Content Analysis
  • C. Real-time Sandboxing Analysis
  • D. Visibility control

Answer: C

Explanation: ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

NEW QUESTION 11
Which option helps customers gain insight into security threats?

  • A. Limit volume of users to applications
  • B. Share sensitive data across Afferent platforms
  • C. Providing remote access VPN to allow mobile users to connect securely to customers network
  • D. Providing visibility into everything to allow granular security policies to be created and enforced

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
Which Policy and Access solution technology combines posture checks and authentication across wired, wireless, and VPN networks?

  • A. Cisco AnyConnect
  • B. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System
  • C. Cisco Stealthwatch
  • D. ASA 2100 series

Answer: A

Explanation: Cisco Cloud Security SE - Module 3

NEW QUESTION 13
Which options Cisco solutions are coveredenable customer's businesses?

  • A. Enhancing remediation operations
  • B. Having the fastest threat identification
  • C. Automating the security intelligence updates
  • D. Their ability to keep customers networks more secure and make IT more productive

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Which feature of Cisco AnyConnect allows pie-login authentication using windows machines, or single sign-on user authentication using Windows logon credentials?

  • A. Secure Layer-2 Network Access
  • B. Flexible AAA Options
  • C. Differentiated Mobile Access
  • D. Trusted Network Detection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
Which are two main features of FirePOWER Threat Defense? (Choose two.)

  • A. Unify Images for more intuitive interface management
  • B. Provide malware detection score foe additional analytics
  • C. Deliver Data Loss Prevention through the virtual lock
  • D. Offer intuitive interface including new management options and control

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 16
What are two main features of enabling Cloudlock in a customer’s environment? (Choose two)

  • A. Cloudlock connects via Oauth
  • B. Cloud App security works on plug-in
  • C. Easily creates network lags for different users
  • D. It takes less than five minutes to enable per platform
  • E. Protects against cloud-native malware

Answer: AE

Explanation: Cisco Cloud Security SE - Module 3

NEW QUESTION 17
What are three major features of Cisco Defense Orchestrator? (Choose three.)

  • A. Providing retrospective security to protect against malware
  • B. Receive notifications about any unplanned changes to security policies and objects
  • C. Plan and model security changes before deploying them across the cloud
  • D. Identifying anomalous traffic in customer's network
  • E. Ability to deploy changes across virtual environments in real time or offline
  • F. Tracking suspicious files through the network

Answer: BCE

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