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Online CTFL-Foundation free questions and answers of New Version:

NEW QUESTION 1
It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

  • A. Yes, it’s strongly recommended.
  • B. No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts
  • C. Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations
  • D. Only the expert testers can make exhaustive test

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
The cost of fixing a fault:

  • A. Is not important
  • B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
  • C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
  • D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
  • E. Can never be determined

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
Failure is

  • A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program
  • B. Bug found before product Release
  • C. Bug found after product Release
  • D. Bug found during Design phase

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the software

  • A. Create an invoice
  • B. Amend an invoice
  • C. Process an invoice (send to customer)
  • D. Delete an invoice
  • E. Create an account
  • F. Create an account user
  • G. Amend an account user
  • H. Delete an account user
  • I. Amend an account
  • J. Delete an accountWhich of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run? [K3]
  • K. f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h
  • L. e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j
  • M. e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j
  • N. f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

  • A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
  • B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
  • C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
  • D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

  • A. Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code
  • B. Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards
  • C. Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards
  • D. Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.
Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

  • A. Performance, Usability, Regression.
  • B. System, Load, Fail-over.
  • C. Performance, Load, Stress.
  • D. Load, Volume and Componen

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

  • A. Test planning and control
  • B. Test analysis and design
  • C. Test implementation and execution
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: C

Explanation:
Incident management tools are most useful during test implementation and execution as this is the stage at which the tool is used to raise, manage, retest and close incidents.
The data collected during the defect life cycle can then be manipulated into information that is useful for other activities within the fundamental test process.
Information on numbers of defects outstanding may be useful for evaluating exit criteria (option (D)). This information could also be used for planning future testing and for taking control (option (A)).
Incident management tools can also assist in test analysis and design (option (B)) as information about defects found when testing the previous release of the system could be used when analyzing the type of testing required for the next enhancement.

NEW QUESTION 9
You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company. Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

  • A. Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects
  • B. Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script
  • C. Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance
  • D. Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review..?

  • A. Project Manager
  • B. Test Engineer
  • C. Test Manager
  • D. None of the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit

  • A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
  • B. Percentage of requirements covered
  • C. Lines of code written per developer per day
  • D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

  • A. Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defect
  • B. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.
  • C. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defect
  • D. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
  • E. Testing removes fault
  • F. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.
  • G. Dynamic testing prevents causes of failure
  • H. Debugging removes the failure

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit

  • A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
  • B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
  • C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
  • D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
  • E. The maturity of the organization, e.
  • F. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
  • G. It builds on large set of historical data
  • H. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 14
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

  • A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
  • B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
  • C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
  • D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

  • A. Determine differences between files or databases.
  • B. Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.
  • C. Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.
  • D. Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercise

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16
Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

  • A. Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
  • B. Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
  • C. Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
  • D. Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit

  • A. They are a cheap resource
  • B. They have good testing skills
  • C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
  • D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18
Complete statement and branch coverage means..?

  • A. That you have tested every statement in the program
  • B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program
  • C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program
  • D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 19
Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test strategy?2 credits (2 out correct 1 credit)

  • A. Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test
  • B. Define test career paths
  • C. Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house
  • D. Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks
  • E. Issue the test strategy document for review
  • F. Define a master test plan template
  • G. Perform a project risk analysis

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 20
Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:

  • A. Test Analysis and Design
  • B. Test Planning and control
  • C. Test Closure Activities
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
Statement Coverage will not check for the following:

  • A. Missing Statements
  • B. Unused Branches
  • C. Dead Code
  • D. Unused Statement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 22
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase? 1 credit

  • A. A requirements review meeting
  • B. A business analyst eliciting requirements
  • C. Performing acceptance tests against requirements
  • D. A test report showing requirements coverage

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23
Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

  • A. Executing the software work product
  • B. Manually examining the code or project documentation
  • C. Automated analysis of the code or project documentation
  • D. Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 24
What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

  • A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
  • B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
  • C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
  • D. To know when test planning is complete
  • E. To plan when to stop testing

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 25
When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called..?

  • A. An error
  • B. A fault
  • C. A failure
  • D. A defect
  • E. A mistake

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

  • A. Software traceability process
  • B. Incidence management process
  • C. Testing design process
  • D. Configuration management process

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 27
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