All About Tested CAPM Practice Test

NEW QUESTION 1

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

• A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.
• B. tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.
• C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
• D. creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

• A. realigned.
• B. performed.
• C. improved.
• D. controlle

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

• A. Initiating
• B. Planning
• C. Executing
• D. Closing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

• A. Preventive action
• B. Risk management
• C. Corrective action
• D. Defect repair

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

• A. Executing
• B. Monitoring and Controlling
• C. Planning
• D. Initiating

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

• A. Develop Project Team.
• B. Manage Project Team.
• C. Acquire Project Team.
• D. Plan Human Resource Managemen

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

• A. Product analysis.
• B. Variance analysis.
• C. Document analysis,
• D. Decompositio

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

• A. Monitoring and Controlling
• B. Initiating
• C. Planning
• D. Executing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

• A. Organizational process updates
• B. Quality metrics
• C. Change requests
• D. Quality control measurements

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

• A. Start-to-start (SS)
• B. Start-to-finish (SF)
• C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)
• D. Finish-to-start (FS)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

• A. Perform Quality Control
• B. Perform Quality Assurance
• C. Plan Quality
• D. Report Performance

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

• A. Within a work package.
• B. In each phase of the project.
• C. To estimate schedule constraints.
• D. To estimate resource allocation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

• A. Exploit
• B. Share
• C. Enhance
• D. Transfer

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

• A. Acquisition
• B. Earned value management
• C. Vendor bid analysis
• D. Forecasting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

• A. Inspection
• B. Variance analysis
• C. Decomposition
• D. Product analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

• A. Control Scope
• B. Define Scope
• C. Plan Scope Management
• D. Collect Requirements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

• A. Fixed Fee
• B. Free Float
• C. Fixed Finish
• D. Finish-to-Finish

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

• A. organizational process assets
• B. a requirements traceability matrix
• C. the project charter
• D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

• A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
• B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
• C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
• D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

• A. stakeholder management strategy.
• B. communications management plan,
• C. stakeholder register,
• D. performance repor

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21

When is a Salience Model used?

• A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
• B. During quality assurance
• C. In stakeholder analysis
• D. During quality control (QC)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

• A. Project manager
• B. External stakeholders
• C. Internal stakeholders
• D. Project team

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

• A. Configuration Identification
• B. Configuration Status Accounting
• C. Configuration Verification and Audit
• D. Configuration Quality Assurance

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

• A. Plan Risk Management
• B. Plan Risk Responses
• C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
• D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 25

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

• A. Initiating
• B. Planning
• C. Executing
• D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26
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