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Q1. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4
Answer: C
Explanation:
The destination IP address 10.1.5.65 belongs to 10.1.5.64/28, 10.1.5.64/29 & 10.1.5.64/27 subnets but the “longest prefix match” algorithm will choose the most specific subnet mask
-> the prefix “/29 will be chosen to route the packet. Therefore the next-hop should be
10.1.3.3 ->.
Q2. - (Topic 5)
What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?
A. global unicast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unspecified address
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv6 Anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, meaning an Anycast address is used by a device to send data to one specific recipient (interface) that is the closest out of a group of recipients (interfaces).
Q3. - (Topic 8)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of setting the no login command?
A. Telnet access is denied.
B. Telnet access requires a new password at the first login.
C. Telnet access requires a new password.
D. no password is required for telnet access.
Answer: D
Q4. - (Topic 4)
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.
Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.
Q5. - (Topic 6)
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
A. access-list 110 permit ip any any
B. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
D. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
Answer: B
Explanation:
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a standard access list.
Q6. - (Topic 3)
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Answer: B,G
Explanation:
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table directly. Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the same next hop IP address.
Q7. - (Topic 6)
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. BPDU Filter
Answer: D
Explanation:
We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports.
With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop.
Q8. - (Topic 3)
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Answer: C
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run command in global configuration mode. The “cdp enable” command is an interface command, not global.
Q9. - (Topic 5)
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtime<input type
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec<input type
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime<input type
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Answer: B
Explanation:
Enable millisecond (msec) timestamps using the service timestamps command: router(config)#service timestamps debug datetime msec.
router(config)#service timestamps log datetime msec The “service timestamps debug”. command configures the system to apply a time stamp to debugging messages. The time- stamp format for datetime is MMM DD HH:MM:SS, where MMM is the month, DD is the date, HH is the hour (in 24-hour notation), MM is the minute, and SS is the second. With the additional keyword msec, the system includes milliseconds in the time stamp, in the format HH:DD:MM:SS.mmm, where .mmm is milliseconds.
Q10. - (Topic 8)
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Answer: D