The Latest Guide To 200-601 exam question

Q1. A cookie cutter machine requires 2 standard controllers and a safety controller. All of these controllers and machine level I/O have been placed on VLAN 104. The safety controller must monitor an emergency stop connected to an I/O adapter on an adjacent machine (VLAN 105). Which packet type will be used? 

A. UDP Multicast TTL = 1 

B. UDP Multicast TTL = 2 

C. UDP Unicast 

D. TCP Unicast 

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Q2. Which two actions are examples of network device hardening for Cisco Industrial Ethernet Switches? (Choose two) 

A. Disable unused services 

B. Shutdown network ports which are not in use 

C. Only allow administrative access using Telnet 

D. Deploy IP67 versions of Cisco Industrial Ethernet Switches 

E. Set the native VLAN on all trunk ports to VLAN 1 

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Q3. Which in-depth approach is used when deploying defense in an industrial zone? 

A. Besides using a dedicated firewall / DMZ construction use an IOS based firewall on the WAN router connecting the industrial site to the Internet. 

B. Use NTP to make sure that time stamps of log messages are synchronized such that you can do root cause analysis. 

C. Deploy an IDS solution with knowledge about industrial protocols in the industrial zone in combination with a firewall. 

D. Use multiple firewalls from different vendors in such a way that network traffic will have to traverse both firewalls so that security holes of one firewall is caught by the other firewall. 

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Q4. Refer to the exhibit. 

All of the vlans listed in the routing table below are trunked using 802.1q and are active on all switches. PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3 each has IP address 192.168.0.1/24 and are connected to ports configured for vlan 50. L2SW1, L2SW2, and L2SW3 are not using vlan trunking for vlan 50. 

L3SW1 has following routing table:

 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks C.10.3.138.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan307 C.10.3.136.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan306 C.10.15.153.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan398 C.10.3.142.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan309 C.10.3.140.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan308 C.10.3.186.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan293 C.10.15.154.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan399 C.10.3.184.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan292 C.10.3.190.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan295 C.10.3.188.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan294 

C.10.3.182.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan291 

C.10.3.180.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan290 

PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3 cannot be reconfigured. What can be done to be able to simultaneously communicate with PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3? 

A. Enable NAT on L3SW1 

B. Enable NAT on L2SW1 – L2SW3 

C. Enable NAT on L2SW4 

D. Add vlan 50 to L2SW4 and assign.the administrator's.an IP address on 192.168.0.0/24 network 

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Q5. Which describes the relationship between a workgroup bridge? 

A. Wired clients of a workgroup bridge can communicate, through the workgroup bridge, with wireless clients of an autonomous or a controller-based access point 

B. Wireless clients of a controller-based AP can communicate, through the workgroup bridge, with wireless clients of an autonomous access point 

C. Wireless clients of an autonomous access point can communicate with wired clients of a workgroup bridge, but Wireless clients of a controller-based access point cannot communicate with wired clients of a workgroup bridge 

D. Wireless clients of a controller-based access point can communicate with wired clients of a workgroup bridge, but Wireless clients of an autonomous access point cannot communicate with wired clients of a workgroup bridge 

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Q6. Given the CIA triad elements, which ensures first that the data is encrypted and secure, second that the data is trustworthy, and third that the data is accessible by those who need it? 

A. CIA 

B. ICA 

C. ACI 

D. CAI 

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Q7. Which configuration enables an Industrial Ethernet switch to participate in PTP clock selection and sets the priority value that would break the tie between switches with matching default criteria to 50? 

A. ptp mode boundary ptp priority1 10 ptp priority2 50 

B. ptp mode boundary ptp priority1 50 ptp priority2 10 

C. ptp mode e2etransparent ptp priority1 50 ptp priority2 10 

D. ptp mode e2etransparent ptp priority1 10 ptp priority2 50 

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Q8. Refer to the exhibit. Which lines represent a CIP connection being established between two devices? 

A. 2914 and 2915 

B. 2918 and 2921 

C. 2920 and 2924 

D. 2937 and 2940 

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Q9. Which selection is a reason why IGMP snooping should be configured on a switched network? 

A. IGMP snooping populates the snooping table with the results of DHCP requests and can be used by Dynamic ARP Inspection to block IP spoofing attacks at Layer-2. 

B. IGMP snooping verifies the source IP address of every IPv4 packet to ensure that it hasn't been originated from a port different than its return path. 

C. IGMP snooping is used to filter ping requests and results to avoid overflowing the MAC address table of the switch. 

D. IGMP snooping allows a Layer-2 switch to limit the transmission of multicast frames to only the ports that have members of the relevant IGMP group. 

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Q10. Which statement is correct regarding Media Redundancy Protocol (MRP) in a ring of ProfiNET devices? 

A. When a link fault is detected, MRP rings must converge in less than 100 milliseconds 

B. MRP defines two device roles, Media Redundancy Master and Media Redundancy Client 

C. MRP can support rings of up to 250 devices 

D. MRP is only supported on network switches 

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