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Q1. Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific connection? 

A. Frame Relay inverse ARP 

B. static DLCI mapping 

C. Frame Relay broadcast queue 

D. dynamic DLCI mapping 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Dynamic address mapping uses Frame Relay Inverse ARP to request the next-hop protocol address for a

specific connection, given its known DLCI. Responses to

Inverse ARP requests are entered in an address-to-DLCI mapping table on the router or access server; the

table is then used to supply the next-hop protocol

address or the DLCI for outgoing traffic.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/wan/configuration/guide/fwan_c/wcffrely.html

Q2. Refer to the exhibit. 

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct? 

A. There is no default gateway. 

B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1. 

C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1. 

D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router (gateway of last resort).

Q3. You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. 

What is the advertised distance for the 192.168.46.0 network on R1? 

A. 333056 

B. 1938688 

C. 1810944 

D. 307456 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q4. Scenario: 

You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-config command. 

Which of the following statements is true about the serial links that terminate in R3 

A. The R1-R3 link needs the neighbor command for the adjacency to stay up 

B. The R2-R3 link OSPF timer values are 30, 120, 120 

C. The R1-R3 link OSPF timer values should be 10,40,40 

D. R3 is responsible for flooding LSUs to all the routers on the network. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q5. Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet against the routing table? 

A. source address 

B. destination address 

C. router interface 

D. default gateway 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The Unicast RPF feature helps to mitigate problems that are caused by the introduction of

malformed or forged (spoofed) IP source addresses into a network by discarding IP packets that lack a

verifiable IP source address. For example, a number of common types of denial-of-service (DoS) attacks,

including Smurf and Tribal Flood Network (TFN), can take advantage of forged or rapidly changing source

IP addresses to allow attackers to thwart efforts to locate or filter the attacks. For Internet service providers

(ISPs) that provide public access, Unicast RPF deflects such attacks by forwarding only packets that have

source addresses that are valid and consistent with the IP routing table. This action protects the network of

the ISP, its customer, and the rest of the Internet. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/

security/configuration/guide/scfrpf.html

Q6. How does an IOS router process a packet that should be switched by Cisco Express Forwarding without an FIB entry? 

A. by forwarding the packet 

B. by dropping the packet 

C. by creating a new FIB entry for the packet 

D. by looking in the routing table for an alternate FIB entry 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q7. IPv6 has just been deployed to all of the hosts within a network, but not to the servers. Which feature allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 servers? 

A. NAT 

B. NATng 

C. NAT64 

D. dual-stack NAT 

E. DNS64 

Answer:

Explanation: 

NAT64 is a mechanism to allow IPv6 hosts to communicate with IPv4 servers. The NAT64 server is the

endpoint for at least one IPv4 address and an IPv6 network segment of 32-bits (for instance 64:ff9b::/96, see RFC 6052, RFC 6146). The IPv6 client embeds the IPv4 address it wishes to communicate with using these bits, and sends its packets to the resulting address. The NAT64 server then creates a NAT-mapping between the IPv6 and the IPv4 address, allowing them to communicate.

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NAT64

Q8. A network engineer executes the show ip flow export command. Which line in the output indicates that the send queue is full and export packets are not being sent? 

A. output drops 

B. enqueuing for the RP 

C. fragmentation failures 

D. adjacency issues 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Table 5 show ip flow export Field Descriptions Field Description Exporting flows to 10.1.1.1

Specifies the export destinations and ports. (1000) and 10.2.1.1 The ports are in parentheses. Exporting

using source Specifies the source address or interface. IP address 10.3.1.1 Version 5 flow records

Specifies the version of the flow. 11 flows exported in 8 udp The total number of export packets sent, and

datagrams the total number of flows contained within them. 0 flows failed due to lack of No memory was

available to create an export export packet packet. 0 export packets were sent The packet could not be

processed by CEF or up to process level by fast switching, possibly because another feature requires

running on the packet. 0 export packets were Indicates that CEF was unable to switch the dropped due to

no fib packet or forward it up to the process level. 0 export packets were dropped due to adjacency issues

0 export packets were Indicates that the packet was dropped because dropped due to of problems

constructing the IP packet. fragmentation failures 0 export packets were dropped due to encapsulation

fixup failures 0 export packets were Indicates that there was a problem transferring dropped enqueuing for

the the export packet between the RP and the line RP card. 0 export packets were dropped due to IPC

rate limiting 0 export packets were Indicates that the send queue was full while dropped due to output the

packet was being transmitted. drops

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/oaggnf.html

Q9. When using SNMPv3 with NoAuthNoPriv, which string is matched for authentication? 

A. username 

B. password 

C. community-string 

D. encryption-key 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The following security models exist: SNMPv1, SNMPv2, SNMPv3. The following security

levels exits: "noAuthNoPriv" (no authentiation and no encryption noauth keyword in CLI),

"AuthNoPriv" (messages are authenticated but not encrypted auth keyword in CLI), "AuthPriv" (messages

are authenticated and encrypted priv keyword in CLI). SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 models only support the

"noAuthNoPriv" model since they use plain community string to match the incoming packets. The SNMPv3

implementations could be configured to use either of the models on per-group basis (in case if

"noAuthNoPriv" is configured, username serves as a replacement for community string). Reference: http://

blog.ine.com/2008/07/19/snmpv3-tutorial/

Q10. Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.) 

A. starvation 

B. jitter 

C. latency 

D. windowing 

E. lower throughput 

Answer: A,C,E 

Explanation: 

It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially

streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during

periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been

detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and

retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower

transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service

provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates,

potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/

UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput. TCP-starvation/UDPdominance

likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class

as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is

enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part)

only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDPbased

flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing

decisions. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/cc/so/neso/vpn/vpnsp/spqsd_wp.htm