Exam Code: 400-251 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CCIE Security Written Exam
Certification Provider: Cisco
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Q1. Refer to the exhibit, which effect of this configuration is true?

A. The PMTUD value sets itself to 1452 bytes when the interface MTU is set to 1492 bytes

B. SYN packets carries 1452 bytes in the payload when the Ethernet MTU of the interface is set to 1492 bytes

C. The maximum size of TCP SYN+ACK packets passing the transient host is set to 1452 bytes and the IP MTU of the interface is set to 1492 bytes

D. The MSS to TCP SYN packets is set to 1452 bytes and the IP MTU of the interface is set to 1492 bytes

E. The minimum size of TCP SYN+ACL packets passing the router is set to 1452 bytes and the IP MTU of the interface is set to 1492 bytes

Answer: D

Q2. NWhich two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two.

A. The ISO is a government-based organization.

B. The ISO has three membership categories: Member, Correspondent, and Subscribers.

C. Subscriber members are individual organizations.

D. Only member bodies have voting rights.

E. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.

Answer: B,D

Explanation: Member bodies are national bodies considered the most representative standards body in each country. These are the only members of ISO that have voting rights.

Q3. What is the maximum pattern length supported by FPM searches within a packet ?

A. 256 bytes 

B. 1500 bytes

C. 512 bytes

D. 128 bytes

Answer: A

Q4. when you configure an ASA with RADIUS authentication and authorization, which attribute is used to differentiate user roles?

A. login-ip-host

B. cisco-priv-level

C. service-type

D. termination-action

E. tunnel-type

Answer: C

Q5. What is the purpose of enabling the IP option selective Drop feature on your network routers?

A. To protect the internal network from IP spoofing attacks.

B. To drop IP fragmented packets.

C. To drop packet with a TTL value of Zero.

D. To protect the network from DoS attacks.

Answer: D

Q6. Which three statement about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three)

A. It can run as more than one instance.

B. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters.

C. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT.

D. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices.

E. It can generate syslog massages that are visible only to individual VPNs.

F. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices.

Answer: A,D,E

Q7. What protocol does IPv6 Router Advertisement use for its messages?

A. TCP

B. ICMPv6

C. ARP

D. UDP

Answer: B

Q8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected across and ASA with MD5 authentication. Which statement about eBGP peering between the routers could be true?

A. eBGP peering will fail because ASA is transit lacks BGP support.

B. eBGP peering will be successful.

C. eBGP peering will fail because the two routers must be directly connected to allow peering.

D. eBGP peering will fail because of the TCP random sequence number feature.

Answer: C

Q9. When you are configuring QoS on the Cisco ASA appliance Which four are valid traffic selection criteria? (Choose four)

A. default-inspection-traffic

B. qos-group

C. DSCP

D. VPN group

E. tunnel group

F. IP precedence

Answer: A,C,E,F

Q10. Which two statements about Network Edge Authentication Technology (NEAT) are true? (Choose two)

A. It requires a standard ACL on the switch port

B. It conflicts with auto-configuration

C. It allows you to configure redundant links between authenticator and supplicant switches

D. It supports port-based authentication on the authenticator switch

E. It can be configured on both access ports and trunk ports

F. It can be configured on both access ports and EtherChannel ports

Answer: D,E