The Secret Of CompTIA SY0-701 Training Tools

NEW QUESTION 1

A cyber security administrator is using iptables as an enterprise firewall. The administrator created some rules, but the network now seems to be unresponsive. All connections are being dropped by the firewall Which of the following would be the best option to remove the rules?

• A. # iptables -t mangle -X
• B. # iptables -F
• C. # iptables -2
• D. # iptables -P INPUT -j DROP

Answer: B

Explanation:
iptables is a command-line tool that allows an administrator to configure firewall rules for a Linux system. The -F option flushes or deletes all the existing rules in the selected chain or in all chains if none is given. It can be used to remove the rules that caused the network to be unresponsive and restore the default firewall behavior.

NEW QUESTION 2

A contractor overhears a customer recite their credit card number during a confidential phone call. The credit card Information is later used for a fraudulent transaction. Which of the following social engineering techniques describes this scenario?

• A. Shoulder surfing
• B. Watering hole
• C. Vishing
• D. Tailgating

Answer: A

Explanation:
Shoulder surfing is a social engineering technique that involves looking over someone’s shoulder to see what they are typing, writing, or viewing on their screen. It can be used to steal passwords, PINs, credit card numbers, or other sensitive information. In this scenario, the contractor used shoulder surfing to overhear the customer’s credit card number during a phone call.

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following describes a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment?

• A. RTO
• B. MTBF
• C. MTTR
• D. RPO

Answer: C

Explanation:
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 4.6 Explain the importance of secure coding practices. Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 323.

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?

• A. CVE
• B. CVSS
• C. CIA
• D. CERT

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. CVSS.
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System. It is a framework that provides a standardized way to measure the criticality of a vulnerability based on various factors, such as the impact, exploitability, and remediation level of the vulnerability. CVSS assigns a numerical score from 0 to 10 to each vulnerability, where 0 means no risk and 10 means the highest risk. CVSS also provides a qualitative rating for each score, such as low, medium, high, or critical. CVSS helps organizations prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities based on their severity and potential impact12.
CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. It is a list of publicly known and standardized identifiers for vulnerabilities and exposures in software and hardware systems. CVE provides a brief description of each vulnerability or exposure, but does not assign a score or rating to them. CVE helps organizations communicate and share information about vulnerabilities and exposures in a consistent and reliable way3 .
CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It is a model that defines the three main objectives of information security. Confidentiality means protecting data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity means ensuring data is accurate and consistent and has not been tampered with. Availability means ensuring data is accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. CIA helps organizations design and implement security controls and policies to protect their data and systems .
CERT stands for Computer Emergency Response Team. It is a group of experts who respond to security incidents and provide guidance and assistance to mitigate and prevent cyberattacks. CERT also conducts research and analysis on cybersecurity trends and issues, and disseminates information and best practices to the public. CERT helps organizations improve their security posture and resilience against cyber threats .
For more information on CVSS and other concepts related to vulnerability assessment and management, you can refer to [this video] or [this guide] from CompTIA Security+.

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following identifies the point in time when an organization will recover data in the event of an outage?

• A. SLA
• B. RPO
• C. MTBF
• D. ARO

Answer: B

Explanation:
Detailed
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the maximum duration of time that an organization can tolerate data loss in the event of an outage. It identifies the point in time when data recovery must begin, and any data loss beyond that point is considered unacceptable.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-601 by Mike Chapple and David Seidl, Chapter-7: Incident Response and Recovery, Objective 7.2: Compare and contrast business continuity and disaster recovery concepts, pp. 349-350.

NEW QUESTION 6

Certain users are reporting their accounts are being used to send unauthorized emails and conduct suspicious activities. After further investigation, a security analyst notices the following:
• All users share workstations throughout the day.
• Endpoint protection was disabled on several workstations throughout the network.
• Travel times on logins from the affected users are impossible.
• Sensitive data is being uploaded to external sites.
• All user account passwords were forced to be reset and the issue continued. Which of the following attacks is being used to compromise the user accounts?

• A. Brute-force
• B. Keylogger
• C. Dictionary
• D. Rainbow

Answer: B

Explanation:
The symptoms suggest a keylogger is being used to compromise the user accounts, allowing the attackers to obtain the users' passwords and other sensitive information. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

NEW QUESTION 7

Per company security policy, IT staff members are required to have separate credentials to perform administrative functions using just-in-time permissions. Which of the following solutions is the company Implementing?

• A. Privileged access management
• B. SSO
• C. RADIUS
• D. Attribute-based access control

Answer: A

Explanation:
The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.

NEW QUESTION 8

A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Which of the following is most likely occurring?

• A. A worm is propagating across the network.
• B. Data is being exfiltrated.
• C. A logic bomb is deleting data.
• D. Ransomware is encrypting files.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Data is being exfiltrated when an internal system is sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a system or network to an external destination or actor. Data exfiltration can be performed by malicious insiders or external attackers who have compromised the system or network. DNS queries are requests for resolving domain names to IP addresses. DNS queries can be used as a covert channel for data exfiltration by encoding data in the domain names or subdomains and sending them to a malicious DNS server that can decode and collect the data. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exfiltration
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 9

An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service accounts. Requirements for the project include:
* Check-in/checkout of credentials
* The ability to use but not know the password
* Automated password changes
* Logging of access to credentials
Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?

• A. OAuth 2.0
• B. Secure Enclave
• C. A privileged access management system
• D. An OpenID Connect authentication system

Answer: C

Explanation:
A privileged access management (PAM) system is a solution that helps protect organizations against cyberthreats by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources12. A PAM system can meet the requirements of the project by providing features such as:
Check-in/checkout of credentials: A PAM system can store and manage privileged credentials in a secure vault, and allow authorized users to check out credentials when needed and check them back in when done. This reduces the risk of credential theft, misuse, or sharin2g3.
The ability to use but not know the password: A PAM system can enable users to access privileged accounts or resources without revealing the actual password, using methods such as password injection, session proxy, or single sign-on23. This prevents users from copying, changing, or sharing password2s.
Automated password changes: A PAM system can automatically rotate and update passwords for privileged accounts according to predefined policies, such as frequency, complexity, and uniqueness23
. This ensures that passwords are always strong and unpredictable, and reduces the risk of password
reuse or compromise2.
Logging of access to credentials: A PAM system can record and audit all activities related to privileged access, such as who accessed what credentials, when, why, and what they did with them23. This provides visibility and accountability for privileged access, and enables detection and investigation of anomalies or incidents2.
A PAM system is different from OAuth 2.0, which is an authorization framework that enables third-party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service on behalf of a resource owner4. OAuth 2.0 does not provide the same level of control and security over privileged access as a PAM system does.
A PAM system is also different from a secure enclave, which is a hardware-based security feature that creates an isolated execution environment within a processor to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or modification5. A secure enclave does not provide the same functionality as a PAM system for managing privileged credentials and access.
A PAM system is also different from an OpenID Connect authentication system, which is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that enables users to verify their identity across multiple websites using a single login6. OpenID Connect does not provide the same scope and granularity as a PAM system for controlling and monitoring privileged access.

NEW QUESTION 10

A store receives reports that shoppers’ credit card information is being stolen. Upon further analysis, those same shoppers also withdrew money from an ATM in that store.
The attackers are using the targeted shoppers’ credit card information to make online purchases. Which of the following attacks is the MOST probable cause?

• A. Identity theft
• B. RFID cloning
• C. Shoulder surfing
• D. Card skimming

Answer: D

Explanation:
The attackers are using card skimming to steal shoppers' credit card information, which they use to make online purchases. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 11

After installing a patch On a security appliance. an organization realized a massive data exfiltration occurred. Which Of the following describes the incident?

• A. Supply chain attack
• B. Ransomware attack
• C. Cryptographic attack
• D. Password attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
A supply chain attack is a type of attack that involves compromising a trusted third-party provider or vendor and using their products or services to deliver malware or gain access to the target organization. The attacker can exploit the trust and dependency that the organization has on the provider or vendor and bypass their security controls. In this case, the attacker may have tampered with the patch for the security appliance and used it to exfiltrate data from the organization.

NEW QUESTION 12

A corporate security team needs to secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities to ensure only authorized users can access corporate resources. Which of the following should the security team do? (Refer the answer from CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ documents or guide at comptia.org)

• A. Identify rogue access points.
• B. Check for channel overlaps.
• C. Create heat maps.
• D. Implement domain hijacking.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ guide, the answer to the question is A. Identify rogue access points. To secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities, the corporate security team should focus on
identifying rogue access points, which are unauthorized access points that have been set up by employees or outsiders to bypass security controls. By identifying and removing these rogue access points, the team can ensure that only authorized users can access corporate resources through the wireless network.
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

NEW QUESTION 13

An organization discovered a disgruntled employee exfiltrated a large amount of PII data by uploading files Which of the following controls should the organization consider to mitigate this risk?

• A. EDR
• B. Firewall
• C. HIPS
• D. DLP

Answer: D

Explanation:
DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, print, email, upload, or download sensitive data based on predefined policies and rules.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/data-loss-prevention-dlp

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following would satisfy three-factor authentication requirements?

• A. Password, PIN, and physical token
• B. PIN, fingerprint scan, and ins scan
• C. Password, fingerprint scan, and physical token
• D. PIN, physical token, and ID card

Answer: C

Explanation:
Three-factor authentication combines three types of authentication methods: something you know (password), something you have (physical token), and something you are (fingerprint scan). Option C satisfies these requirements, as it uses a password (something you know), a physical token (something you have), and a fingerprint scan (something you are) for authentication.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom Note: There could be other options as well that could satisfy the three-factor authentication requirements as
per the organization's security policies.

NEW QUESTION 15

A company recently suffered a breach in which an attacker was able to access the internal mail servers and directly access several user inboxes. A large number of email messages were later posted online. Which of the following would bast prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur?

• A. Implement S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest.
• B. Enable full disk encryption on the mail servers.
• C. Use digital certificates when accessing email via the web.
• D. Configure web traffic to only use TLS-enabled channels.

Answer: A

Explanation:
S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. S/MIME can provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication and
non-repudiation for email communications. S/MIME can encrypt the emails at rest, which means that the
email contents are protected even if they are stored on the mail servers or the user inboxes. S/MIME can prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur, as the attacker would not be able to decrypt or read the encrypted emails without the proper keys or certificates. Verified References:
Cryptography Concepts – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.8 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/ (See
S/MIME)
Mail Encryption - CompTIA Security+ All-in-One Exam Guide (Exam SY0-301) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9780071771474/sec5_chap14.html (See S/MIME)
Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 6.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/symmetric-and-asymmetric-encryption/ (See S/MIME)

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following is a security implication of newer 1CS devices that are becoming more common in corporations?

• A. Devices with celular communication capabilities bypass traditional network security controls
• B. Many devices do not support elliptic-curve encryption algorithms due to the overhead they require.
• C. These devices often lade privacy controls and do not meet newer compliance regulations
• D. Unauthorized voice and audio recording can cause loss of intellectual property

Answer: D

Explanation:
Industrial control systems (ICS) are devices that monitor and control physical processes, such as power generation, manufacturing, or transportation. Newer ICS devices may have voice and audio capabilities that can be exploited by attackers to eavesdrop on sensitive conversations or capture confidential information. This can result in the loss of intellectual property or trade secrets. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-industrial-control-system-security

NEW QUESTION 17
......